Foul on 1 and 1 freethrow

[johnsonboys03]

On the front end of a 1 and 1 A1 releases the ball for a try on goal and before the ball hits the rim, B1 crosses the free-throw line and fouls A1.

How would this be administered from this point?

Here is what I came up with. Would this be correct?

Technically if the ball was released on a try for goal the free-throw doesn't end until it's successful or unsuccessful. So you would have two infractions. First is the violation (A1 would shoot again if unsuccessful), then penalize the foul with the proper amount of free-throws if in the bonus. Being the front end of a 1 on 1 if the foul caused a bonus situation you would clear the lane for the remainder of the original 1 and 1. If no bonus free-throw would follow then you still clear the lane finish the free-throw and administer a throw in to A under the basket.

[BigT]

I tell the coaches we have both a violation and foul. He will shoot the orginial 1 and 1 again with the lane cleared. Then we will fill the lane and shoot the next foul being a 1 and 1 with the lane full.

[bob jenkins]

That all sounds correct, except that since the original FT was the front end of a 1-1, then the foul on the shooter must also result in FTs -- either a 1-1 or 2. No thorw-in here. (THe concept is correct, however)

[johnsonboys03]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

That all sounds correct, except that since the original FT was the front end of a 1-1, then the foul on the shooter must also result in FTs -- either a 1-1 or 2. No thorw-in here. (THe concept is correct, however)

Thanks Bob. I did intend on writing that but didn't realize I didn't. Thanks so much for the help

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

That all sounds correct, except that since the original FT was the front end of a 1-1, then the foul on the shooter must also result in FTs -- either a 1-1 or 2. No thorw-in here. (THe concept is correct, however)

No true. Check the NFHS play rulings issued last year.

This would not be a foul during the act of shooting. It is a common foul, which could result in bonus FTs or a throw-in.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

No true. Check the NFHS play rulings issued last year.

This would not be a foul during the act of shooting. It is a common foul, which could result in bonus FTs or a throw-in.

If A1 is shooting the first shot of 1-and-1, how could any foul on Team B not be 1-and-1 or a 2-shot bonus in this situation?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

This would not be a foul during the act of shooting. It is a common foul, which could result in bonus FTs or a throw-in.

As a general statement, I agree. In this specific instance, where Team A is already in the bonus, then Team A will continue to be in the bonus after the next foul.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

As a general statement, I agree. In this specific instance, where Team A is already in the bonus, then Team A will continue to be in the bonus after the next foul.

And now I see the light! Your logic was exquisite in that scenario.

I was stuck in the general case and failed to comprehend the specific situation.