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Thanks for all of the responses ...just to continue the discussion
In my related earlier post back on April 7 "Travelling or Fumbled Ball" BEAREF posted: "Without possession of the ball a travel violation is not possible". And in this my current post: "Fumbled Ball(cont)" JeffM posted: "A fumble is the accidental loss of player control (of the ball) when the player unintentionally drops or slips from a player's grasp" I agree with the posts with all three of the "hypos" something illegal has occurred BUT in my mind a query still exists .... if you can't travel without the ball ... and the player in the 3 hypos does not have the ball .... there seems to be an inconsistency here ...is it just because a player inadvertently loses control of the ball due to a faulty maneuver of his own doing that we ignore that he or she was able to move to a different part of the court!" I understand it is in the casebook ...but is it written this way in the rulebook ...it seems a bit contradictory to me in one instance it is okay to go after and retrieve the ball and in another it is a violation of some sorts... |
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Some of those cases are enumerated, some may not be. Example: A1 obtains possession of the ball while laying on the floor...legal. A1 sits the ball on the floor and is no longer holding the ball...legal. A1 stand...legal. A1 picks up the ball...illegal....traveling. Even though A1 did not hold the ball while moving the or standing up, this is considered an unfair attempt to circumvent the rules and is to be considered as if A1 were holding the ball the entire time as far as the traveling rule goes. Tossing the ball into the air and running to catch it before it hits the floor is rules a violation under similar thinking.
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