Last Play of the Game Question

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Matt

It wouldn't.

Per JEA:
"If the winning run is forced in as the result of a batted ball, all runners including the batter-runner are obligated to touch their next bases. The BR must advance to and touch 1st base, and any other runner forced must advance to and touch his next base. If any such forced runner fails to do so, a force out appeal play is in order; and if it is sustained for the third out, no run shall count since the third out was, in effect, a force out. If this appeal force out is not the third out, the runner shall be declared out but the winning run scores."

Not what 4.09b says.

Edited to add: also not the way MLB calls it, correctly, according to 4.09b. The video posted in post 14 is an example:
http://mlb.mlb.com/news/article.jsp?...rtnerId=rss_sd

That's a walk, not a batted ball, but the same rule applies (and is ruled the same).