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Last Play of the Game Question
Tie game, bottom of the last inning. Bases loaded one out. Hit to the OF. Runner scores and batter tags first. Suppose the runners on first and second never touch second and third. As players are leaving, the defense tags second and third asking for a inning ending double play (after the runner scores and the batter tags first). What is the correct ruling?
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Why would this be denied OBR?
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It's like Deja Vu all over again |
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I think that it would be denied because of 4.09 (b):
When the winning run is scored in the last half-inning of a regulation game, or in the last half of an extra inning, as the result of a base on balls, hit batter or any other play with the bases full which forces the runner on third to advance, the umpire shall not declare the game ended until the runner forced to advance from third has touched home base and the batter-runner has touched first base. |
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appeal at 2nd granted. appeal at 3rd denied; after the appeal at 2nd was granted, the force on R2 was removed and he was not obligated to advance. Game over.
If they had appealed in the proper order (3rd, then 2nd), they'd have had an inning-ending DP and extra innings. |
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Quote:
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Quote:
If instead the batted ball is thrown directly from the OF to 3rd base, it's a force out on R2; and then, the ball is thrown directly to 2nd base, it's a force out on R1 - double play all during unrelaxed action whereby the side is retired on force outs; consequently, R3's run does not count. Game continues. This is how Jaksa/Roder interpret 4.09b and 7.04b Last edited by cookie; Thu Jun 07, 2012 at 10:42pm. |
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I think I did a bad job of wording my orignal question. How about this....
Bases Loaded, bottom of the last inning, tie game. OBR rules. Batter hits a ground ball to 3B. Defense turns what appears to be a 5-4 double play. However, the batter and runner on third are very fast. The run scores and the batter tags first before the out is recorded at 2B. My interp of 4.09b is that the game was over before the out at second. The runs scores and the game is over. If the same thing had happened in the first inning, no runs scores. Am I wrong? |
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No, they are missed bases and that requires a proper appeal.
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When in doubt, bang 'em out! Ozzy |
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I found an old thread that addresses my question. A similiar play happened in a Padres/D-back game last year.
Padres withdraw protest over D-backs' walk-off | padres.com: News |
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Quote:
Speaking of extra innings (begin thread hijack), I had my first extras of the summer the other night. Home team was up 2-0 in the top of the last inning. 2 outs, R1, R2, and the batter hits a ball to short right, a clear single. Should have been maybe 1 run scored, and when the next batter grounded out, game over, right? It was a clear single to everyone but F9. He dove for it, the ball hit the ground literally 15 feet away from him, bounced over him, and rolled to the wall. 2 runs in, BR to 3B, tie game, and (after the next batter grounded out and the home team did nothing in their half) we have extra innings. To add insult to injury: F9 came up in the bottom of the inning. Before a 1-1 pitch, he raised his hand and stepped out of the box: but my partner did NOT grant time! Strike 2! He was steamed about that. When the next pitch nipped the outside corner, he threw his bat against the fence and ejected himself. Presumably not his best inning of baseball. We now return you to your regularly scheduled thread, with apologies for the hijack and thanks for the venting.
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Cheers, mb |
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