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I didn't read into the OP that it was deliberate. When the original poster said "sounds incorrect to me", I was wanting to point out that without a deliberate intent to interfere, the batter would indeed be awarded first base. |
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Thanks for the clarification. The runner hitting the ball was not intentional, not sure he could have done it on purpose if he wanted to.
Seems strange to award the batter first in this situation because the play was completed. I can see how it could go differently and I would want to argue that it is a dead ball. The ball again hits the runner unintentionally and goes into the outfield allowing the batter to advance to second or third, if I were on defense I would be ticked. Why could this not be handled like a balk, delayed dead ball with the offense given the option. Balk but the pitch is made, ball is hit out of the park, play is accepted. Hell maybe that isn't correct either. Thanks Easygoer |
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In OBR you may elect to keep the result of the play. |
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Not exactly in OBR.
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I expect you know this, but for newer umpires it can be confusing to remember what penalties permit a coach a choice.
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Cheers, mb |
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That's different from OBR, where the pitch can happen and be nullified (for a true "no-pitch") if the offense fails to advance everyone. Subtle distinction, perhaps, but that's why we get the big money! ![]()
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Cheers, mb |
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If the runner did not interfere willfully and deliberately, then the batter is awarded 1B. You can't call him out, and you can't send him back to the plate: what else are you going to do with him?
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Cheers, mb |
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