Dead Ball

[Mrumpiresir]

Originally Posted by mbyron

The OP doesn't say either way. If we're charitable to the BU and assume he was right, he must have ruled that R1 willfully and deliberately contacted the ball in order to break up a DP.

I'd rather assume that the umpire was right than that the coach was. I don't think that's a 50-50 proposition.

I think we are in agreement that if R1 was simply running to second and was hit, the batter would be awarded first. If the umpire judges a deliberate attempt to interfere and break up a double play, we should get two outs.

I didn't read into the OP that it was deliberate. When the original poster said "sounds incorrect to me", I was wanting to point out that without a deliberate intent to interfere, the batter would indeed be awarded first base.