runner returned to first after foul ball

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

I was not disagreeing with whatshisname, I was merely adding to his comment, presenting a different scenario:

Here is what whatshisname said: If the runner attains the base before the time the pitcher starts his motion. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

My point was that the start of the motion for the Set position is when the pitcher brings his hands together, not when he delivers the ball. So, in the Set Position, R1 could stay at 2nd base, even if he arrived there AFTER the pitcher had started his motion, but BEFORE the TOP. So, his post should have read like this: If the runner attains the base before the Time of the Pitch. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

In the Set the start of the motion does not equal the TOP.

OK - gotcha