The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 06:03pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Posts: 1
Question

A runner at first in the standard situation gets hit with a batted ball between first and second. Ok, he's out and the batter is awarded first base. How is each of the players scored? I assume interference on the runner, but what about the batter? Is it a base hit, or is there some other way to score it?
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 06:46pm
DG DG is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
Quote:
Originally posted by wfwbb
A runner at first in the standard situation gets hit with a batted ball between first and second. Ok, he's out and the batter is awarded first base. How is each of the players scored? I assume interference on the runner, but what about the batter? Is it a base hit, or is there some other way to score it?
No hit, one at bat.
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 07:50pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 3,186
It's scored a hit. See scoring rule 10.05(e).
__________________
Rich Ives
Different does not equate to wrong
Reply With Quote
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 08:29pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Posts: 1,643
How many hits can you get in an inning without scoring a run?

It is six. 3 singles to load bases. Then a runner is hit with a batted ball by each of the next three batters.
Reply With Quote
  #5 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 08:32pm
DG DG is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Ives
It's scored a hit. See scoring rule 10.05(e).
10.06(e) seems to be the rule to use when interference is called. 10.05(e) must apply when the ball passed an infielder and then hit a runner.
Reply With Quote
  #6 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 08:33pm
DG DG is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
How many hits can you get in an inning without scoring a run?

It is six. 3 singles to load bases. Then a runner is hit with a batted ball by each of the next three batters.
Sounds like 3 hits in this inning to me, 10.06(e).
Reply With Quote
  #7 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 10:04pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Posts: 1,643
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
How many hits can you get in an inning without scoring a run?

It is six. 3 singles to load bases. Then a runner is hit with a batted ball by each of the next three batters.
Sounds like 3 hits in this inning to me, 10.06(e).
10.06
A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases (e) When a runner is called out for interference with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball, unless in the scorer's judgment the batter runner would have been safe had the interference not occurred.

10.05
A base hit shall be scored in the following cases (e) When a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly
Reply With Quote
  #8 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 10:38pm
DG DG is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
How many hits can you get in an inning without scoring a run?

It is six. 3 singles to load bases. Then a runner is hit with a batted ball by each of the next three batters.
Sounds like 3 hits in this inning to me, 10.06(e).
10.06
A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases (e) When a runner is called out for interference with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball, unless in the scorer's judgment the batter runner would have been safe had the interference not occurred.

10.05
A base hit shall be scored in the following cases (e) When a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly
What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense.

[Edited by DG on Jul 14th, 2004 at 11:43 PM]
Reply With Quote
  #9 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 10:49pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 3,186
"What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense."

The point is that the scoring rule says to score it a hit. It doesn't matter if it makes sense or whether or not you like it.

If a runner scores after a fly ball is caught, does it make sense to score a sacrifice fly if an outfielder catches it but not if an infielder catches it? Nope. But that's what the scoring rules require.

Why four balls but only three strikes?
__________________
Rich Ives
Different does not equate to wrong
Reply With Quote
  #10 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 14, 2004, 11:14pm
DG DG is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Ives
"What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense."

The point is that the scoring rule says to score it a hit. It doesn't matter if it makes sense or whether or not you like it.

If a runner scores after a fly ball is caught, does it make sense to score a sacrifice fly if an outfielder catches it but not if an infielder catches it? Nope. But that's what the scoring rules require.

Why four balls but only three strikes?
I am not convinced that the scoring rules would call this a hit. Did you read 10.06(e), or you just ignoring it?

I doubt a run scores on a fly caught by an infielder, it only makes sense to me to score a sac fly if the ball is deep enough to score on. And I don't know what that has to do with the point of this discussion. This is clearly misdirection.

[Edited by DG on Jul 15th, 2004 at 12:25 AM]
Reply With Quote
  #11 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jul 15, 2004, 02:35am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Posts: 1,643
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
I am not convinced that the scoring rules would call this a hit. Did you read 10.06(e), or you just ignoring it?

I doubt a run scores on a fly caught by an infielder, it only makes sense to me to score a sac fly if the ball is deep enough to score on. And I don't know what that has to do with the point of this discussion. This is clearly misdirection.
Forget about 10.06(e), it is for when a runner and a fielder collide.

Now read rule 10.05
A base hit shall be scored in the following cases (e) When a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly

It is clearly stated in rule 10.05 that the batter is credited with a hit.
Reply With Quote
  #12 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jul 15, 2004, 08:01am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 17,041
Quote:
Originally posted by DG


What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense.

The point is that one of the rules deals with "interference with a fielder" the other deals with "interference with a ball".

Just as the playing rules are different, the scoring rules are different.

Reply With Quote
  #13 (permalink)  
Old Sat Jul 17, 2004, 03:12pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Posts: 51
If a batted ball hits an Ump before passing a fielder, excluding the pitcher, it is a dead ball hit. All runners advance one base.

If the ball hits a runner before passing a fielder and the runner is declared out. Then the batter is placed on first and the judgement of the scorer determines a hit or not. In most casses, the scorer will side with the batter. Maybe it's not the right rule, but then again, it not the end of the world.
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks

Thread Tools
Display Modes Rate This Thread
Rate This Thread:

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 01:42pm.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1