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-   -   runner returned to first after foul ball (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/91142-runner-returned-first-after-foul-ball.html)

upprdeck Fri May 11, 2012 07:49pm

runner returned to first after foul ball
 
runners on first and third, runner on first takes off , pitcher is watching runner on 3rd and holds the ball. runner reaches and rounds 2nd base, pitcher then starts the motion to throw home.

ball is then fouled off and runner is told to return to first.

just doesnt seem right to penalize the offense

mbyron Fri May 11, 2012 08:47pm

He gets to stay at 2B.

upprdeck Fri May 11, 2012 09:06pm

that is what i would have argued as well, i just wasnt sure where in the rule book it was covered.. i have never seen a runner get that far off a base before a pitch..

teccan9nja Sat May 12, 2012 01:39am

If the runner had got to second before the pitch was released, I'd say he had stolen second and return him there. My thought is where you are when the pitch is released is where you go back to on a foul ball.

Steven Tyler Sat May 12, 2012 02:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by teccan9nja (Post 841471)
If the runner had got to second before the pitch was released, I'd say he had stolen second and return him there. My thought is where you are when the pitch is released is where you go back to on a foul ball.

If the runner attains the base before the time the pitcher starts his motion. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

Rich Sat May 12, 2012 08:06am

Quote:

Originally Posted by teccan9nja (Post 841471)
If the runner had got to second before the pitch was released, I'd say he had stolen second and return him there. My thought is where you are when the pitch is released is where you go back to on a foul ball.

Your "thought" is irrelevant. And wrong. What's the definition? Cite the rule.

Rich Ives Sat May 12, 2012 08:40am

Quote:

Originally Posted by teccan9nja (Post 841471)
If the runner had got to second before the pitch was released, I'd say he had stolen second and return him there. My thought is where you are when the pitch is released is where you go back to on a foul ball.

It's where you were at the time of the pitch.

The time of the pitch is when the pitcher's movements/motion commit him to pitch.

In this case the runner stole second BUT it was because he got there before the time of the pitch.

SanDiegoSteve Sat May 12, 2012 10:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler (Post 841474)
If the runner attains the base before the time the pitcher starts his motion. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

The Time of the Pitch is not necessarily the time he starts his motion. In this case, the pitcher came to the Set Position prior to R1 attaining 2nd, but the TOP did not occur until he committed to home plate, which is why the runner got to stay at 2nd. Had it been the Windup Position, then the TOP would be when he started his motion, and R1 would have had to return to 1st.

Rich Ives Sat May 12, 2012 11:56am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve (Post 841517)
The Time of the Pitch is not necessarily the time he starts his motion. In this case, the pitcher came to the Set Position prior to R1 attaining 2nd, but the TOP did not occur until he committed to home plate, which is why the runner got to stay at 2nd. Had it been the Windup Position, then the TOP would be when he started his motion, and R1 would have had to return to 1st.

Why is windup different?

5.7 TIME OF PITCH
The time of pitch is defined as the moment the pitcher's movements commit him to deliver the
ball to the batter.

In a windup position, this is defined as the moment the pitcher begins the natural movement
associated with his delivery of the ball to the batter (i.e., the start of his windup or delivery).

From a set position, this is defined as the moment the pitcher begins the natural movement
associated with his delivery of the ball after the pitcher has come set with both hands together
in front of his body.


If the motion is associated with his delivery it is the start.

thumpferee Sat May 12, 2012 12:05pm

Where does it say in the OP pitcher was in wind-up or stretch? Says pitcher then starts his MOTION to throw home.

Steven Tyler Sat May 12, 2012 04:10pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by thumpferee (Post 841528)
Where does it say in the OP pitcher was in wind-up or stretch? Says pitcher then starts his MOTION to throw home.

Don't feed the troll............................:rolleyes:

thumpferee Sat May 12, 2012 04:36pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler (Post 841541)
Don't feed the troll............................:rolleyes:

Lol, you didn't just say that...!

Steve said in this situation, the pitcher came set. He could have been in the wind-up and the poster was describing his motion forward to pitch. I was picturing a slow wind-up.

Was just a thought

SanDiegoSteve Sat May 12, 2012 05:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 841525)
Why is windup different?

5.7 TIME OF PITCH
The time of pitch is defined as the moment the pitcher's movements commit him to deliver the
ball to the batter.

In a windup position, this is defined as the moment the pitcher begins the natural movement
associated with his delivery of the ball to the batter (i.e., the start of his windup or delivery).

From a set position, this is defined as the moment the pitcher begins the natural movement
associated with his delivery of the ball after the pitcher has come set with both hands together
in front of his body.


If the motion is associated with his delivery it is the start.

I was not disagreeing with whatshisname, I was merely adding to his comment, presenting a different scenario:

Here is what whatshisname said: If the runner attains the base before the time the pitcher starts his motion. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

My point was that the start of the motion for the Set position is when the pitcher brings his hands together, not when he delivers the ball. So, in the Set Position, R1 could stay at 2nd base, even if he arrived there AFTER the pitcher had started his motion, but BEFORE the TOP. So, his post should have read like this: If the runner attains the base before the Time of the Pitch. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

In the Set the start of the motion does not equal the TOP.

Rich Ives Sat May 12, 2012 07:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve (Post 841544)
I was not disagreeing with whatshisname, I was merely adding to his comment, presenting a different scenario:

Here is what whatshisname said: If the runner attains the base before the time the pitcher starts his motion. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

My point was that the start of the motion for the Set position is when the pitcher brings his hands together, not when he delivers the ball. So, in the Set Position, R1 could stay at 2nd base, even if he arrived there AFTER the pitcher had started his motion, but BEFORE the TOP. So, his post should have read like this: If the runner attains the base before the Time of the Pitch. He has legally acquired that base. The release of the pitch is non-relevant in this scenario.

In the Set the start of the motion does not equal the TOP.

OK - gotcha


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