Batter/Runner Int.

[UmpJM]

Originally Posted by mbyron

...

You're NOT saying you cancel the out on R2 because of the BR's INT at 1B, are you? I'm negating R3's run because he's not likely to have been running on the pitch, and so wouldn't reach HP before the BR reaches 1B (the TOI).

Why wouldn't R2's out count as an intervening play? It's a play, and it intervenes between the batted ball and the INT!

Michael,

In my experience, on a ball batted into play, the R3 will invariably score before the BR reaches 1B.

What I intended to say was that...

If the R3 did in fact reach HP before the interference,

AND

you returned the R3 to 3B as a result of the BR's interference,

you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B as well.

As I said, I'm not really sure whether a play at a base other than HP "counts" as an intervening play. In addition to what I said in my previous post, you will notice that greymule included the "...at home plate..." qualifier, and I have seen other credible posters suggest the same thing in the past.

To me, it seems that ANY intervening play should qualify to invoke the "exception" - I'm just not sure. And, I can't find any credible interpretation that clarifies the question one way or the other.

JM