Batter/Runner Int.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

I'm wondering now how you're envisioning this play if you've got garden-variety thrown ball INT. Pegging the batter runner in the back is not interference, so what are you imagining on this play.

Mike, the OP does not mention "pegging the runner in the back," but instead stipulates INT with a thrown ball. I'm envisioning the BR swiping at F3's glove as he runs past 1B, à la A-Rod.

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

So, I am unsure whether the play on R2 at 3B would "count" as an intervening play under OBR rules. If it doesn't, I would think you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B if you negate the R3's score and return him to 3B.

You're NOT saying you cancel the out on R2 because of the BR's INT at 1B, are you? I'm negating R3's run because he's not likely to have been running on the pitch, and so wouldn't reach HP before the BR reaches 1B (the TOI).

Why wouldn't R2's out count as an intervening play? It's a play, and it intervenes between the batted ball and the INT!