Batter/Runner Int.

[MD Longhorn]

Wow. Running lane interference is almost always from F2, and rarely from F1. Not sure I've ever seen or considered it called from 3rd base. BR must have been WAY inside the baseline for this call to be made.

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Wow. Running lane interference is almost always from F2, and rarely from F1. Not sure I've ever seen or considered it called from 3rd base. BR must have been WAY inside the baseline for this call to be made.

Yeah. Usually F2, sometimes F1, once in a blue moon from F5 on a bunt, but I have personally NEVER seen runner interference on a throw to first from F5 from the vicinity of 3rd base (as the OP described).

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Wow. Running lane interference is almost always from F2, and rarely from F1. Not sure I've ever seen or considered it called from 3rd base. BR must have been WAY inside the baseline for this call to be made.

I don't think the OP is talking about RLI. I read it as garden-variety thrown ball INT.

I would not call RLI on a play from F5 involving contact between F3 and BR -- the BR is allowed to be in fair territory that close to the base.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by mbyron

I don't think the OP is talking about RLI. I read it as garden-variety thrown ball INT.

I would not call RLI on a play from F5 involving contact between F3 and BR -- the BR is allowed to be in fair territory that close to the base.

I'm wondering now how you're envisioning this play if you've got garden-variety thrown ball INT. Pegging the batter runner in the back is not interference, so what are you imagining on this play.

The reason I assumed RLI was this " His throw is up the line and the batter/runner is called out for interfering with the throw." I'm seeing up the line and BR being way into the infield for this to be a valid INT.

I think it likely the bad call was the INT itself! Can't see this really happening.

[UmpJM]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

...

I think it likely the bad call was the INT itself! Can't see this really happening.

mbcrowder,

You have no basis (other than your own, apparently limited, imagination) for making this judgement.

More to the point, it has ABSOLUTELY NOTHING to do with the question posed in the OP.

The question was if there WERE interference (suspend all disbelief as to whether or not this was a "correct" call), what would the proper ruling be?

To argue whether or not this actually WAS interference is a complete waste of time, because there was not sufficient information supplied to determine whether it properly was or wasn't - so all you can do is engage in baseless speculation on that question.

However, there was (nearly) sufficient information to discuss the actual question asked.

In FED, the "basic" rule (to which there ARE a couple of exceptions) is that runners return to the base occupied at the TOI. So, in a FED game, if the R3 had scored at the time the interference occurred, his run WOULD score (unless the interference were the 3rd out of the half inning).

In OBR, if the interference occurs before the BR has reached 1B, any remainng runners return to their TOP base. UNLESS there was an "intervening play" by the defense that occurred between the TOP and TOI. In which case, runners also return to their TOI base.

Now greymule was the first person on this thread to mention the "intervening play" exception under OBR. He suggests that it only applies if the "intervening play" occurred at home/on a runner attempting to score.

While EVERY published case play touching on the question in the official/authoritative interpretation manuals does, in fact, involve a play at HP - without exception, NONE of them explicitly states that the intervening play MUST occur at home for the exception to apply - again without exception.

So, I am unsure whether the play on R2 at 3B would "count" as an intervening play under OBR rules. If it doesn't, I would think you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B if you negate the R3's score and return him to 3B.

JM

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

I'm wondering now how you're envisioning this play if you've got garden-variety thrown ball INT. Pegging the batter runner in the back is not interference, so what are you imagining on this play.

Mike, the OP does not mention "pegging the runner in the back," but instead stipulates INT with a thrown ball. I'm envisioning the BR swiping at F3's glove as he runs past 1B, à la A-Rod.

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

So, I am unsure whether the play on R2 at 3B would "count" as an intervening play under OBR rules. If it doesn't, I would think you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B if you negate the R3's score and return him to 3B.

You're NOT saying you cancel the out on R2 because of the BR's INT at 1B, are you? I'm negating R3's run because he's not likely to have been running on the pitch, and so wouldn't reach HP before the BR reaches 1B (the TOI).

Why wouldn't R2's out count as an intervening play? It's a play, and it intervenes between the batted ball and the INT!

[UmpJM]

Originally Posted by mbyron

...

You're NOT saying you cancel the out on R2 because of the BR's INT at 1B, are you? I'm negating R3's run because he's not likely to have been running on the pitch, and so wouldn't reach HP before the BR reaches 1B (the TOI).

Why wouldn't R2's out count as an intervening play? It's a play, and it intervenes between the batted ball and the INT!

Michael,

In my experience, on a ball batted into play, the R3 will invariably score before the BR reaches 1B.

What I intended to say was that...

If the R3 did in fact reach HP before the interference,

AND

you returned the R3 to 3B as a result of the BR's interference,

you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B as well.

As I said, I'm not really sure whether a play at a base other than HP "counts" as an intervening play. In addition to what I said in my previous post, you will notice that greymule included the "...at home plate..." qualifier, and I have seen other credible posters suggest the same thing in the past.

To me, it seems that ANY intervening play should qualify to invoke the "exception" - I'm just not sure. And, I can't find any credible interpretation that clarifies the question one way or the other.

JM

[greymule]

I was under the impression that the intervening play had to be at home plate. Yes, the case plays always have the play there, but I also remember reading some seemingly authoritative interpretation that mentioned the "finality of a run scoring." The same source said that a runner from 2B who had advanced to 3B during the intervening play at home would have to return to 2B even if he had reached 3B before the INT.

But I'm going only by what I drew from the discussion on that thread. I do not know for certain.