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Old Tue Jan 22, 2008, 12:39am
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If the defense can nail the offense for an advantageous 4th out after the third out has occurred, why can't the offense correct a baserunning infraction after the 3rd out. It doesn't seem fair to me if you wave off the run since the defense can get advantageous outs after the 3rd out and the offense can't do anything about it...
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Old Tue Jan 22, 2008, 12:46am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by justanotherblue
OK, however the runner has only aquired the base, he hasn't touched it, by returning, he turns it into a timing play, so how can the run score AFTER the thrid out? The only way the run can remain is if the defense doesn't appeal, and the runner doesn't return to touch the plate.
It was a time play to begin with. R2 crossed (acquired) the plate ahead of the 3rd out. The touch doesn't create a new time play, it just corrects a baserunning error. I understand your disagreement on this point, but I still can't see how touching the plate can take off a run that has already scored (absent an appeal).
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Old Tue Jan 22, 2008, 01:50am
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simple.. timing...timing...timing.... If the runner was attempting to return immediatley I would hope I was aware enough to see what was going on and wave off the run to begin with. As you said, it was/is a timing play to begin with, therefore, no run would score as the runner missed the plate, was attempting to touch it when the third out was made BEFORE he was able to touch the plate, no run scores. Regardless, it is a time play, the third out was made before the runner legally touched the plate. That's my story and I'm sticking to it1
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Old Thu Jan 24, 2008, 12:59pm
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Under the old fed rules with no dead ball appeal?

In SC we still call the old fed rule that has the umpire call all dead ball appeals (missed bases or no tag ups) immediately upon the completion of play and time called. Would we call this play any differently?
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Old Thu Jan 24, 2008, 01:17pm
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So we seem to be lost on acquiring vs. touching a base with continual action, or in Roders words unrelaxed action. I haven't read any post that ignores the fact that one can acquire a base or score a run when he only passes the base, leaving the runner vulnerable to appeal as Publius seems to suggest, what's being lost and subsuquently ignored is the time play involved in the touch of said missed base in relation to the time of the third out and the time of the touch of the plate. So with that said, I need another cup of coffee, I think I'll add some Baileys to it, and continue on with the day.
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Old Fri Jan 25, 2008, 02:52pm
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Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Robert E. Harrison
In SC we still call the old fed rule that has the umpire call all dead ball appeals (missed bases or no tag ups) immediately upon the completion of play and time called. Would we call this play any differently?
Using the OP as an example under the OLD FED rule, the run would not have counted.

After playing action was complete, we would have called R3 out for missing home base hence no run would count.

Quote:
In SC we still call the old fed rule that has the umpire call all dead ball appeals


Then it stands to reason SC still enforces the accidental appeal. Is that the case?

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