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I'm not sure I see the contradiction.
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In short I suppose, is that umpires need to be aware of what happens to runners (forced or unforced) as a result of the batter becoming a runner on ball four when the pitcher balks. How 'bout this: In all of the following examples, F1 balks but delivers ball four to the batter. R1, R1 and R2, Bases Loaded Balk not enforced because all runners (including BR) advance on the merit of the play. R2 only, R3 only,R1 and R3, R2 and R3 Balk enforced because no runner is forced to advance. Edited (twice) to fix balk enforced sitch.
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"They can holler at the uniform all they want, but when they start hollering at the man wearing the uniform they're going to be in trouble."- Joe Brinkman Last edited by ctblu40; Wed Sep 27, 2006 at 05:10pm. |
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