Balk Enforcement
 

Our recent discussion on when to call time on a balk when ball four is delivered caused me to look closely at the MLBUM. I'm wondering if I haven't found a slight contradiction.


MLBUM

7.8 Penalty for Balk

When a balk is made on a pitch that is a fourth ball it shall be ruled the same as when the batter hits a balk pitch and is safe on a hit or error, provided all runners advance at least one base on the play. Therefore, with a runner on first, first and second, or first, second and third, when a balk is called on the fourth ball, the batter goes to first base and all runners advance at least one base. If they attempt to advance more than one base, they do so at their own risk. However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do not advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty prevails: The ball is dead; the batter returns to the batter's box and assumes the same ball and strike count as before the balk pitch; and all runners are allowed to advance one base as penalty for the balk.

I left the questionable text in red. It seems to me that in saying that if an unforced runner doesn't advance on ball four, there would be a situation such as a steal where an unforced runner could advance on ball four and be put in jeapordy should he advance beyond his next base. The contradiction comes later in 7.9 in regards to calling time after a balk.


MLBUM

7.9 CALLING "TIME" AFTER A BALK

(5) If the balk is followed by ball four delivered to the batter and is caught by the catcher, call "Time" and enforce the balk unless all runners advance one base because of ball four. In that situation, play proceeds without reference to the balk.

Am I overthinking this?


Tim.

I'm not sure I see the contradiction.
So, here, the balk is enforced if not all runners advance on the 'play'.
Here, all runners have advanced as a result of the 'play', so we leave the ball live and are not enforcing the balk.
Here again, the only time the balk is not enforced is if all runners advance as a result of the play.

In short I suppose, is that umpires need to be aware of what happens to runners (forced or unforced) as a result of the batter becoming a runner on ball four when the pitcher balks.

How 'bout this:
In all of the following examples, F1 balks but delivers ball four to the batter.

R1, R1 and R2, Bases Loaded Balk not enforced because all runners (including BR) advance on the merit of the play.

R2 only, R3 only,R1 and R3, R2 and R3 Balk enforced because no runner is forced to advance.

Edited (twice) to fix balk enforced sitch.

7.9 Calling "time" After A Balk.
 

I couldn't find a contradiction. Although it appears to be additional text that validated the Bossman72 post on the original balk thread by ggk. Both are very informative on the question when to enforce the balk and whether the pitch counts.

I don't see any contradiction in the rule. In OBR, when a balk is followed by a play, if the runners do not advance on the play and the batter does not attain at least first base, the balk is enforced. Runners are awarded one base and the batter returns to the box with the same count as before the balk.

In other words, if the batter receives ball four and there is no runner on first, you are going to enforce the balk and return the batter to the box with the count previous to the balk.

Are you sure you didn't make an error in this sentence? Perhaps you meant R2 and R3, right? R1 and R2 the balk would not be enforced, as you pointed out in the previous sentence.

You're right... what was I thinking? :rolleyes:

Okay, okay... you guys got me again! :confused:

But I did mention R3 only...;)

Here's the contradiction I see. 7.8 seems to imply that an unforced runner can advance on a play after a balk on ball four. This contradicts 7.8 where time is to be called as soon as the catcher catches the ball. For all practical purposes it doesn't make a big difference as if the balk is enforced R2 would be given third. However, if it's not to be enforced he would be in jeapordy should he advance beyond third.


Tim.

I'm not see the same thing as you, Tim. I'm reading it to say that if a runner is not forced to advance because of ball four, the ball becomes dead and the umpire should enforce the balk.

I'm really struggling to see what you perceive to be a contradiction. :confused:

7.8

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do not advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty prevails:


If an unforced runner cannot advance on a ball four balk situation because time is to be called as soon as F2 catches the pitch, then why is the above provision provided. It either implys that an unforced runner can advance, or it's a useless statement. Turn it around and maybe you'll see what I'm getting at.

However, if first base is not occupied and all other runners do advance at least one base on the play, the balk penalty is disregarded.


Tim.

Now I get where you're coming from... I think it's a useless statement.

What if the ball four pitch is a passed ball/wild pitch?

Tim, I think what you're seeing as a contradiction is due to the not-explicitly-stated but still relevant difference between (1) a caught pitch, in which case time is called as soon as the pitch is caught, and the balk is enforced unless it was ball 4 and all runners are forced, and (2) an uncaught (wild pitch or passed ball) ball 4, in which the ball is left live because runners are free to advance BEYOND their protected one base award.

If you layer the "when to call time on a balk" instructions contained in the MLB Manual and the PBUC Manual into the rulings you're citing, I think you eliminate any perceived conflict or contradiction, and achieve a clearer understanding of exactly how to enforce a balk call, in every possible situation.

You're right, Dave. I hadn't considered that the part of 7.8 that I was questioning was addressing the 'otherwise' provision of 8.05 penalty.


Tim.