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Old Tue Jun 27, 2006, 11:35pm
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Ruling and OBR/FED cites please

This came up AGAIN in an U14 travel game today. R2 takes a HUGE lead off second. Pitcher throws to shortstop who promptly tags R2 out. Coach screams that pitcher can only throw to "occupied base". BU concurs and calls balk.
I've scoured the FED rules (the league plays a mutt FED and OBR rules deal - go figure) and can't find support for a balk on this.
PLEASE when you reply (if you do) point me to OBR or FED rules to support a balk. Otherwise, R2 can take a lead halfway to third and - if this BU is correct, pitcher has to throw to SECOND BASE before making a play on the runner, leading to the inevitable result R2 will make it to third.
Thanks again for all your help and insight. I hope I explained it clearly enough.
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Old Wed Jun 28, 2006, 12:00am
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Nah, your partner just blew the call. It is not a balk. IIITBTSB. Almost.

You can look in any book you want, and you won't find this to be a balk. As long as the pitcher steps in the general direction of 2nd base, he can fake a throw, throw it into center field, over the fence (one base award on this one!) or to the shortstop, or any other fielder.

The rule about throwing to the base is for 1st base only, and states that the fielder must be close enough to possibly make a play on R1. This is because the pitcher is required to throw the ball to first from the rubber, he cannot feint to first without disengaging. Thus, occasionally a pitcher will step toward first from the rubber, and discover that F3 is not covering the base. He throws to F3, who is 10 feet off the base, while the runner is going back to the base. This would be a balk, because F3 has no play on the runner. This does not apply to any other base but 1st.
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Old Wed Jun 28, 2006, 12:46am
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It's not a balk if they throw to a base for the purpose of making a play
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Old Wed Jun 28, 2006, 07:53am
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Thanks for the replies - we have two umpire associations in this area and the other one apparently teaches its umpires that a throw has to be to a BASE, not to a fielder. Never made any sense to me, either.
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Old Wed Jun 28, 2006, 07:56am
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Stick with the facts . . .

Not almost . . .

IIITBTSB

Regards,
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Old Wed Jun 28, 2006, 11:15am
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This is not a balk. I had a coach complain about this last week (stupidly, as F6 was literally 2-3 feet from 2B, and so close enough even if there were a requirement that F1 throw "to a base").

One thing you can say is: "you're thinking of the rule about 1B: the pitcher must throw to the base, and it's a balk if F3 is off the base AND can't make a play." I tried this, and the coach told me I was wrong.

Another way to explain: if it is not a balk to feint to 2B, why would it be a balk to throw to a fielder away from the bag?

Once again, the balk rule emerges as the most widely misunderstood rule in baseball.
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