A runner at first in the standard situation gets hit with a batted ball between first and second. Ok, he's out and the batter is awarded first base. How is each of the players scored? I assume interference on the runner, but what about the batter? Is it a base hit, or is there some other way to score it?

No hit, one at bat.

It's scored a hit. See scoring rule 10.05(e).

How many hits can you get in an inning without scoring a run?

It is six. 3 singles to load bases. Then a runner is hit with a batted ball by each of the next three batters.

10.06(e) seems to be the rule to use when interference is called. 10.05(e) must apply when the ball passed an infielder and then hit a runner.

Sounds like 3 hits in this inning to me, 10.06(e).

10.06
A base hit shall not be scored in the following cases (e) When a runner is called out for interference with a fielder attempting to field a batted ball, unless in the scorer's judgment the batter runner would have been safe had the interference not occurred.

10.05
A base hit shall be scored in the following cases (e) When a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly

What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense.

[Edited by DG on Jul 14th, 2004 at 11:43 PM]

<i>"What's your point? Are you for 10.05(e) or 10.06(e)? They do seem to say something different. Logically, I can't see giving a hit to a batter who would have been put out, or at least a fielder's choice would have been scored, if the runner in front had been put out, except for the runner in front's interference. Makes no sense."</i>

The point is that the scoring rule says to score it a hit. It doesn't matter if it makes sense or whether or not you like it.

If a runner scores after a fly ball is caught, does it make sense to score a sacrifice fly if an outfielder catches it but not if an infielder catches it? Nope. But that's what the scoring rules require.

Why four balls but only three strikes?

I am not convinced that the scoring rules would call this a hit. Did you read 10.06(e), or you just ignoring it?

I doubt a run scores on a fly caught by an infielder, it only makes sense to me to score a sac fly if the ball is deep enough to score on. And I don't know what that has to do with the point of this discussion. This is clearly misdirection.

[Edited by DG on Jul 15th, 2004 at 12:25 AM]

Forget about 10.06(e), it is for when a runner and a fielder collide.

Now read rule 10.05
<b>A base hit shall be scored in the following cases</b> (e) When a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder <b>touches a runner</b> or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly

It is clearly stated in rule 10.05 that the batter is credited with a hit.

The point is that one of the rules deals with "interference with a fielder" the other deals with "interference with a ball".

Just as the playing rules are different, the scoring rules are different.

If a batted ball hits an Ump before passing a fielder, excluding the pitcher, it is a dead ball hit. All runners advance one base.

If the ball hits a runner before passing a fielder and the runner is declared out. Then the batter is placed on first and the judgement of the scorer determines a hit or not. In most casses, the scorer will side with the batter. Maybe it's not the right rule, but then again, it not the end of the world.