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Old Tue Jun 11, 2013, 02:07pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by celebur View Post
But has R2 already scored? Is a runner allowed to score ahead of a preceding runner?
I grant this scenario is odd. TWP even. However, based on the rules I read, I see nothing preventing it. Do you?

Given that this would never really happen, and if it did, most umpires would likely "sell" some call that coaches would believe. But if it did, as odd as it sounds, I believe we have 2 runs here.

R2 did not pass anyone - no out there.
R2 scores, so no longer a force on R1.
R1 scores - she had to be tagged for her to be out.

2 runs - and run to your car.
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