Trivia

[celebur]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Not if R2 has already scored.

But has R2 already scored? Is a runner allowed to score ahead of a preceding runner?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by celebur

But has R2 already scored? Is a runner allowed to score ahead of a preceding runner?

I grant this scenario is odd. TWP even. However, based on the rules I read, I see nothing preventing it. Do you?

Given that this would never really happen, and if it did, most umpires would likely "sell" some call that coaches would believe. But if it did, as odd as it sounds, I believe we have 2 runs here.

R2 did not pass anyone - no out there.
R2 scores, so no longer a force on R1.
R1 scores - she had to be tagged for her to be out.

2 runs - and run to your car.

[okla21fan]

Please explain how a force can be taken off, when R2 has not been put out?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by okla21fan

Please explain how a force can be taken off, when R2 has not been put out?

Conceptually...
A force exists because the existence of a BR causes other runners to vacate their base and try to achieve the next one. If a runner is not forced to advance because of the existence of runners behind them having to take their bases, then they are not forced.

It's exactly the same as when a succeeding runner is put out. Example: Bases loaded, R2 is put out before reaching 3rd ... obviously R1 is no longer forced... it's common sense - she no longer has someone who must achieve the base behind her. Why would one be different than the other?

[okla21fan]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Conceptually...
A force exists because the existence of a BR causes other runners to vacate their base and try to achieve the next one. If a runner is not forced to advance because of the existence of runners behind them having to take their bases, then they are not forced.

It's exactly the same as when a succeeding runner is put out. Example: Bases loaded, R2 is put out before reaching 3rd ... obviously R1 is no longer forced... it's common sense - she no longer has someone who must achieve the base behind her. Why would one be different than the other?

because one fits the definition for removing the force on a runner (preceding runner being put out). the other does not. (and not exactly the same)

R1 is still forced to advance only we can show a citation. (and from the OP, the third out was still a result of a force out, and no runs can score.... no matter what the timing is when they scored)