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when did "active" come to mean "intentional" again?
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the same day "implies" came to mean "means".
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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B) Seriously? Kicking the ball out of the batter's box you don't consider hindering the catcher's opportunity to pick it up? Pretty sure the Texas rules interpreter (WS) cited was referring to a similar occurence with an ongoing play at a base other than home, and the batter having no valid reason to even consider moving feet while catcher is retrieving the ball. At least, that is the play I recall him ruling on. All that said, I agree with leaning to a dead ball, no play, as described by others. At the time the ball was actively kicked, there was no play to interfere with; and the intent of the exception noted is clearly and obviously to say the offense can't and shouldn't benefit without an equivalent possible jeopardy. Rule reference, 10.1, making a decision on a play not clearly delineated within the rules, using the spirit and intent of the most similar rule (and, to my knowledge, not subject to a case play ruling, either).
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Steve ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF |
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So, No. The runner wouldn't have scored without the benefit of the kick.
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"Let's face it. Umpiring is not an easy or happy way to make a living. In the abuse they suffer, and the pay they get for it, you see an imbalance that can only be explained by their need to stay close to a game they can't resist." -- Bob Uecker |
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Coming in to this one a bit late, but I agree that:
But, it does occur to me that the interference / out ruling would probably be the call expected by both coaches! ![]()
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Tom |
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Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
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