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			when did "active" come to mean "intentional" again? Quote: 
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			the same day "implies" came to mean "means".
		 
				__________________ I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike | 
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 Quote: 
 B) Seriously? Kicking the ball out of the batter's box you don't consider hindering the catcher's opportunity to pick it up? Pretty sure the Texas rules interpreter (WS) cited was referring to a similar occurence with an ongoing play at a base other than home, and the batter having no valid reason to even consider moving feet while catcher is retrieving the ball. At least, that is the play I recall him ruling on. All that said, I agree with leaning to a dead ball, no play, as described by others. At the time the ball was actively kicked, there was no play to interfere with; and the intent of the exception noted is clearly and obviously to say the offense can't and shouldn't benefit without an equivalent possible jeopardy. Rule reference, 10.1, making a decision on a play not clearly delineated within the rules, using the spirit and intent of the most similar rule (and, to my knowledge, not subject to a case play ruling, either). 
				__________________ Steve ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF | 
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 So, No. The runner wouldn't have scored without the benefit of the kick. 
				__________________ "Let's face it. Umpiring is not an easy or happy way to make a living. In the abuse they suffer, and the pay they get for it, you see an imbalance that can only be explained by their need to stay close to a game they can't resist." -- Bob Uecker | 
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			Coming in to this one a bit late, but I agree that: 
 But, it does occur to me that the interference / out ruling would probably be the call expected by both coaches!   
				__________________ Tom | 
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