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Old Fri Jul 27, 2012, 08:45pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by youngump View Post
How is this not the OP? B1 hits the ball, then she hits the fair batted ball with the bat a second time. And yes it makes it a foul ball. I understand the ruling. My point in my response is that rule 7 doesn't end when the ball is contacted by the bat. Some things in it stop applying. But not all of them (which 7-6-K was a fantastic example).
To start, where do you see the word "bat" or any inference to the bat being used a second time in the OP?

Secondly, 7.6.K clearly references a fair ball over fair territory. The OP clearly references a foul ball over foul territory.
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Last edited by IRISHMAFIA; Fri Jul 27, 2012 at 08:51pm.
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