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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon May 16, 2011, 05:03pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by andyump View Post
interference happened after the runner crossed home
Cool... I have TWO outs, then ... and not 1. The interference prevented an easy double play (catch, throw to third).
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Old Mon May 16, 2011, 08:57pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
Cool... I have TWO outs, then ... and not 1. The interference prevented an easy double play (catch, throw to third).
You're assuming that the ball would have been caught. You can't assume that. The only other out you can get is the BR.
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Old Tue May 17, 2011, 08:13am
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Originally Posted by rwest View Post
You're assuming that the ball would have been caught. You can't assume that. The only other out you can get is the BR.
What rules basis do you have for saying you can't assume that? The more "normal" 2-out interference is with a runner committing intentional interference to break up a double play - you "assume" that the 2nd out would have been made in that case... why is this play any different? The rules simply say the Umpire is to rule a 2nd out as well if in his judgement the interference prevented a double play. This sitch is no different (and is also supported by the common sense idea that the offense should not benefit from interference).
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Old Tue May 17, 2011, 08:20am
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Ok, but you still can't get the runner from 3rd out

Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
What rules basis do you have for saying you can't assume that? The more "normal" 2-out interference is with a runner committing intentional interference to break up a double play - you "assume" that the 2nd out would have been made in that case... why is this play any different? The rules simply say the Umpire is to rule a 2nd out as well if in his judgement the interference prevented a double play. This sitch is no different (and is also supported by the common sense idea that the offense should not benefit from interference).
The runner at 2nd interfered before she was put out. This requires the trailing runner to be called out. That would be the BR. Still can't get the runner from third out.
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Old Tue May 17, 2011, 08:45am
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Can someone reference what rule(s) some of you are talking about?

A few posts back, I mentioned a situation I posed at NUS on which KR ruled.

Bases loaded, 1 out. Batter hits a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup near first base. Initial call is IF, batter is out, if fair. The runner from third breaks for home. She touches home before INT occurs. B/R, now potentially retired, if fair, intentionally interferes w/ F3 causing her to not catch the ball, which was in fair territory.

The ruling was INT by a retired B/R. B/R is already out so the runner closest to home is also out. That runner is the one on second base. Score the run. Inning, potentially game, now over.

I think the difference is that in the above case, we have INT by a retired B/R.

Given the same situation and she bunted a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup, which cannot be an IF, and all other things happened the same, do we have 1 out [on the B/R who INT w/ F3], or 2 outs based on rule reference X.X.x?
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Old Tue May 17, 2011, 09:44am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu View Post
Can someone reference what rule(s) some of you are talking about?

A few posts back, I mentioned a situation I posed at NUS on which KR ruled.

Bases loaded, 1 out. Batter hits a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup near first base. Initial call is IF, batter is out, if fair. The runner from third breaks for home. She touches home before INT occurs. B/R, now potentially retired, if fair, intentionally interferes w/ F3 causing her to not catch the ball, which was in fair territory.

The ruling was INT by a retired B/R. B/R is already out so the runner closest to home is also out. That runner is the one on second base. Score the run. Inning, potentially game, now over.

I think the difference is that in the above case, we have INT by a retired B/R.

Given the same situation and she bunted a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup, which cannot be an IF, and all other things happened the same, do we have 1 out [on the B/R who INT w/ F3], or 2 outs based on rule reference X.X.x?
I certainly don't have the stature to argue with KR but interference with an infield fly is not interference by a retired batter runner. It's not quite on point but see 8-2-I which would be very inconsistent if the BR was out in this situation.
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Old Tue May 17, 2011, 11:09am
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wow did everyone get off on different plays then first described all that is stated do we score the runner from third, 1st criteria ball is not caught, 2nd runner on 3rd touched home before interference , we have 0 outs what is all the confusion do we score runnner and go home or not?
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