Force play question, right to occupy base.

#5 (permalink)

Fri Jul 23, 2010, 03:58pm

Tex

Official Forum Member

Join Date: Aug 2004

Location: Texarkana, Texas

Posts: 156

I re-read the initial play. SAMG you are correct. If the defense touches 2nd base first (that is a force out on R2 from 1st), then tags the initial runner at 2nd (R1) still standing on 2nd, that is not a force out. Result of play is runner at 2nd and 1st with one out on play. Not enough stated information on the sequence of tags at 2nd base.

Last edited by Tex; Fri Jul 23, 2010 at 04:04pm.

Bookmarks

« Previous Thread | Next Thread »

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads You may not post replies You may not post attachments You may not edit your posts BB code is On Smilies are On [IMG] code is On HTML code is On Trackbacks are On Pingbacks are On Refbacks are On Forum Rules

Similar Threads
Thread	Thread Starter	Forum	Replies	Last Post
Runner Missing 1st base on a force play	UmpJordan	Baseball	74	Tue Aug 10, 2021 09:30am
Force play or time play?	Rita C	Baseball	44	Sat Dec 05, 2009 10:12am
detached base force circus	soundedlikeastrike	Baseball	8	Mon Jun 23, 2008 10:18am
(FED) Missing a base DOES NOT remove the force	Illini_Ref	Baseball	16	Fri May 16, 2008 03:31pm
Missed Base force or not ?	JeffS	Baseball	2	Mon Jul 14, 2003 02:33pm

All times are GMT -5. The time now is 12:02pm.