Whats the call?

[youngump]

Originally Posted by DaveASA/FED

Well I am struggling with this. If I read the book you have to be a batter-runner to commit INT with a batted ball, and the ball has to be fair in order to become a batter-runner. So we do have a chicken and egg situation here. I don't know where in the rules it tells me to stop the play with contact when the ball is in foul territory, it can't be for INT since there has to be a fair ball to be a BR. So I'm not relying on it, but I am stuck reading the book and wondering if the batter is not still a batter until the ball is ruled fair as I read the book.

And we still have the USC to prevent the batter from plowing into the fielder.

But the definition of a foul ball says that when interference occurs while the ball is foul then it's a foul ball. For that to mean anything, you have to have a situation where a foul ball can be interfered with.
A foul fly ball comes to mind, but if you have interference with a foul fly ball you don't immediately call the ball foul. You call it dead for interference and call it foul by implication. You don't say just because it's foul, I have no interference.
Now, I'm not sure I remember the foul interference rule. If I had my book I'd look this up, but what do you do with the batter there? Interference by R1 at 3rd with a foul fly ball results in R1 being out, no? And if so, then B2 now has an extra strike. Whereas interference with R1 at 3rd on a fair fly ball results in the B2 becoming R2.
________
Glass Weed Pipe

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by youngump

A foul fly ball comes to mind, but if you have interference with a foul fly ball you don't immediately call the ball foul. You call it dead for interference and call it foul by implication. You don't say just because it's foul, I have no interference..

You cannot have a foul, fly ball though the definition makes that reference A fly ball does not meet the definition of a foul ball.

If there is INT on a fly ball over foul territory, the ball IS dead and declared foul by rule.

Now, I'm not sure I remember the foul interference rule. If I had my book I'd look this up, but what do you do with the batter there? Interference by R1 at 3rd with a foul fly ball results in R1 being out, no? And if so, then B2 now has an extra strike. Whereas interference with R1 at 3rd on a fair fly ball results in the B2 becoming R2.

The batter is also ruled out. Rule 8.7.J.1 w/NOTE and EXCEPTION

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by youngump

But the definition of a foul ball says...(etc)

One thing I think we can all agree on is the rule book has issues with the scenario. Among them are:

o By definition, a play is an attempt to retire a runner or BR
o There must be a play for there to be interference
o If the call is interference, somebody is declared out
o By definition, interference with the fielder while the ball is in foul territory is a foul ball.
o A batter cannot commit interference on a batted ball, but our offender here is now a batter (again, still, who cares...)
o There is no play (by the definition of a play) on a ground ball in foul territory.

Make the call and explain it is the best we can do. The act of interference kills the ball and defines it as a foul ball, which defines the offensive player as a batter, which negates the expected out for the interference call.

Dead ball, foul ball, runners (if any) return, batter back in the box. Use Rule 10 to fill in the issues with Rules 1, 7, and 8.

It ain't pretty, but it seems to me to be about the best there is to do with this one.