LBR question

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Dakota

OK, here is what is retroactive:

Example: Base hit to shallow left. BR overruns 1B, turns right and is heading back toward 1B. F7 is taking her time with the ball and finally throws it to F1. Immediately after F1 has the ball in the circle, BR breaks for 2B and reaches safely.

Notice: BR had turned right BEFORE the LBR was in effect. F7 still had the ball.

Now, you are saying the BR is commited to 1B because she turned right BEFORE the LBR was in effect? You are calling her out on a LBR violation?

No one has even come close to stating that and your scenario is contradictory to what has been posted, including the OP. You are asking if people would call a runner out on the LBR when it has not yet gone into effect.

Paragraph 3 specifically notes that the ball must be in possession of the pitcher in the circle for any of the subsequent scenarios to be in effect.