[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Dakota

I didn't say anything remotely like that. I said F1 has to have the ball in the circle for the LBR to apply, and that whatever happened BEFORE F1 had the ball in the circle is moot for the LBR.

BR overruns 1B, turns (whichever way, I don't care) and heads back to 1B, or angles toward 2B, whatever you want.

AFTER the BR has made her turn and while she is moving toward one base or the other, THEN F1 receives the ball back in the circle.

NOW you want to enforce the LBR based on which way the BR turned BEFORE the rule went into effect?

Really?

What if she heads back to 1B, then moves toward 2B, then heads back toward 1B, and then angles toward 2B again and THEN F1 gets the ball back. Which base, pray tell, is she now committed to under the LBR?

Well, #1, she has placed herself in jeopardy, IMO, but the umpire should consider the direction of the runner at the time the pitcher receives and possesses the ball in the circle as it pertains to the base to which she is committed.