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Originally Posted by JefferMC
I don't understand why you think that the BR has to be touching first while F1 has the ball in the circle for LBR to apply. The rule lists several conditions that must be met and doesn't state an order or that they must occur simultaneously.
In fact, I have a hard time reconciling why they would put 8.7.T.3.d-e in the book if the conditions you describe must be met.
I would have been squarely in your camp until I re-read the rule book and found these little ornery statements.
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I didn't say anything remotely like that. I said F1 has to have the ball in the circle for the LBR to apply, and that whatever happened BEFORE F1 had the ball in the circle is moot for the LBR.
BR overruns 1B, turns (whichever way, I don't care) and heads back to 1B, or angles toward 2B, whatever you want.
AFTER the BR has made her turn and while she is moving toward one base or the other, THEN F1 receives the ball back in the circle.
NOW you want to enforce the LBR based on which way the BR turned BEFORE the rule went into effect?
Really?
What if she heads back to 1B, then moves toward 2B, then heads back toward 1B, and then angles toward 2B again and THEN F1 gets the ball back. Which base, pray tell, is she now committed to under the LBR?