USA test question #2

[CecilOne]

USA test question #2

Bottom of 7th, score tied. R1 scores the winning run from 2nd. Umpire notices that R1 did not touch 3rd, but no appeal made. F1 and infielders leave the field, but umpires are still there. F5 returns to 3rd and appeals R1 missing 3rd.

The umpire rules no appeal as the infielders have left the field.
Why isn’t this a case of “on the last play of the game”, “umpires had not left the field” ? RS 1 – E3

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

USA test question #2

Bottom of 7th, score tied. R1 scores the winning run from 2nd. Umpire notices that R1 did not touch 3rd, but no appeal made. F1 and infielders leave the field, but umpires are still there. F5 returns to 3rd and appeals R1 missing 3rd.

The umpire rules no appeal as the infielders have left the field.
Why isn’t this a case of “on the last play of the game”, “umpires had not left the field” ? RS 1 – E3

8.7.I.1.b

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

USA test question #2

Bottom of 7th, score tied. R1 scores the winning run from 2nd. Umpire notices that R1 did not touch 3rd, but no appeal made. F1 and infielders leave the field, but umpires are still there. F5 returns to 3rd and appeals R1 missing 3rd.

The umpire rules no appeal as the infielders have left the field.
Why isn’t this a case of “on the last play of the game”, “umpires had not left the field” ? RS 1 – E3

Seems to me is should be since E2 is specific to the end of an inning and E3 is specific to the end of the game. Maybe the first word to E3 should be "And"

Of course, my question is if the fielders are gone, why aren't the umpires?

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Seems to me is should be since E2 is specific to the end of an inning and E3 is specific to the end of the game.

When the go ahead run scores in the bottom of a last inning of a game (timed, regular, extra innings) isn't the inning considered "ended"? If the game is ended, almost by definition, the inning that makes up the game has ended as well.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

When the go ahead run scores in the last inning of a game (timed, regular, extra innings) isn't the inning considered "ended"? If the game is ended, almost by definition, the inning that makes up the game has ended as well.

Not if the home team is winning

The point is the RS does not quantify the umpires leaving the field as an additional requirement for the end of the game

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Not if the home team is winning

Caught that and edited it, but you're just too quick for me.