Bouquet pass

[ajmc]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

For one it is not a conventional pass. It is in question as to if he still had the ball. I would give the benefit of the doubt to the benefit of the doubt for such an unusual pass. Now if the hit was several seconds later, then yes. But not for this particular play. I am sure some might disagree, but this is just my take. It certainly does not mean I am correct.

Peace

The foundation for applying all rules is sound judgment and fairness. Considering the caveat, "after it is clear the ball has been thrown" to assess Roughing the passer as defined in NF 9-4-4, considering this contact a foul would seem inappropriate. Your assessment, this would not be a foul, seems to step through a logical progression.