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Foul by B
NFHS rule 10-4-7 has me thinking. It says:
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b) 1st and 10 from the A10. A8 drops back to pass and scrambles into the EZ where B51 grasps, but does not pull, A8's facemask. A8 fumbles and the ball rolls out of bounds at the A3. c) 1st and 10 from the A10. A8 drops back to pass and scrambles into the EZ where B51 grasps, but does not pull, A8's facemask. A8 fumbles and the ball rolls out the back of the EZ. All these plays have A responsible for the ball crossing the EZ, and have loose balls. In a) and c), it is 1st and 15 from the A5, no? But b) confuses me a little. The rules says the basic spot is the goal line, "regardless of where the loose ball becomes dead." Does this mean 1st and 15 from the A5, even though the ball became dead at the 3 (rather than 1st and 12 from the A8)? |
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Pope Francis |
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In B you will need to enforce from the spot where the run ended i believe. Which in this case the goal line will be used as that spot.
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"Call what you see and see what you call!" |
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REPLY: Suudy...Rule 10-4-7 only applies to running plays--not loose ball plays. While not explicitly stated, that's implicit in its use of the words "related run" in the wording. In your plays, the only running play is (a) since A is tackled in the end zone. Both (b) and (c) are loose ball plays since the QB fumbled behind the neutral zone.
Therefore, the new 10-4-7 does indeed govern play (a). The result will be A's ball, 1-15 from A's 5. Plays (b) and (c) are governed by standard loose ball play (previous spot) enforcement. They will both result in A's ball, 1-5 from A's 15. By the way, there is a 2008 editorial revision being submitted for 10-4-7 to more explicitly state that it is only for running plays.
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Bob M. |
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For example, 2nd and 20 from the A40. A8 takes the snap, and under heavy pressure scrambles backwards. At the A25, B51 grabs and pulls A8's facemask. a) A8 is tackled at the A25, b) A8 fumbles and B61 recovers at the A23. In a), it is 2nd and 20 from the A40. In b) it is 2nd and 5 from the B45. Right? Quote:
So I was trying to think of a play with a loose ball where the ball becomes dead in advance of the goal line. I guess the only way this happens is with a COP? How about this case: 1st and 10 from the B10. A8 throws an interception to B5. B5 catches the ball at the B1 and his momentum carries him into the EZ. In the EZ, A80 grabs and pulls B5's facemask and: a) B5 is tackled in the EZ, b) B5 fumbles and the ball rolls out at the B3, c) B5 fumbles and the ball rolls out the back of the EZ. Of course this doesn't seem to apply either, since I think the basic spot is the B1, not the goal line. B is not responsible for "for forcing the ball accross its own goal line" so 10-4-7 doesn't apply. Or this case: 1st and 10 from the B10. A8 throws an interception to B5. B5 catches the ball at the B5. A80 grabs and pulls B5's facemask and B5 fumbles and the ball rolls backwards and out the side of the EZ. Is the basic spot the goal line in this case? But of course the spot of the foul is advance of the goal line, so 1st and 10 for B at the B20. I can't think of an example where a loose ball that becomes dead in advance of the goal line where 10-4-7 would apply. |
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Bob M. |
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Don't we have 2nd & 30 for A @ A30, or did I miss something? |
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