Flop

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by rockyroad

I don't know that I was picturing B3 as having LGP first. But let's say h/she does. Once A1 goes airborne, is B3 allowed to change that position and take away A1's landing?

B3 has LGP. A1 comes straight to him. B3 flops straight back. A1 may not have a place to land, but he wouldn't have had one without the flop, either.
No way is this a foul on B3.

[Art N]

Originally Posted by just another ref

B3 has LGP. A1 comes straight to him. B3 flops straight back. A1 may not have a place to land, but he wouldn't have had one without the flop, either.
No way is this a foul on B3.

Thanks. That is what I was thinking too.