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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:16pm
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If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?

Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense

Did I summarize that right?
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:21pm
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No bonus. Free throws due to "shooting" foul. Boy does that have a new meaning to me now
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:23pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
Did I summarize that right?
For someone who is not an official, I'd buy that summary!
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  #19 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 04:44pm
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If there was no foul, then there is a higher chance that the shot would have been released before the buzzer, so therefore fouls shots must be awarded.
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  #20 (permalink)  
Old Wed Apr 27, 2011, 05:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?

Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense

Did I summarize that right?
And the foul must occur before the buzzer goes off. If the habitual throwing motion starts, horn then foul then you have nothing.
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