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[RandyBrown]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Back in the middle of the twentieth century, in order to charge a technical foul for slapping the backboard, didn't the official need to observe the backboard vibrating during a try? If so, maybe this is what's confusing RandyBrown because somewhere along the way, I believe, the NFHS took away the vibrate part of the rule.

Where's Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. when you need him? Probably calling some poor, young, high school pitcher for a balk because he scratched his nose while on the pitcher's mound.

Billy, there was a lot of confusion to go around, because multiple things got brought up during the discourse. You're back on 10-3-4, where I started. The confusion I am thought to suffer commenced when we moved on to 10-3-3, and someone then broght up basket interference thinking I was involving it, somehow, but I was not.

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

I feel like most every official would call a T or the appropriate violation if a player grabbed the rim with the off-hand and then preceded to dunk the ball with the other hand. For the most part, we don't apply advantage/disadvantage to violations/technical fouls. I suppose you could say a player grabbed the rim to prevent injury and not call the T, but whenever I've seen this called it's pretty obvious that there was no threat of injury.

That sounds like a practical, middle-of-the-road response to my question/situation. Thank you. Anyone diverge from this?