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Sun Jan 30, 2011, 03:22pm
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I assume he meant that the player was touching only out of bounds, as opposed to the foot extending across the line.
Good question, actually. By definition, (4-35-2) When a player is touching....out of bounds the player is ........... out of bounds. Yet, according to 9.2.5 B it is a violation when A1 touches B1 (who is inbounds) it is a violation, because the touch gives A1 inbounds status. A contradiction, is it not?
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove 
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