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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 05:23am
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Throw-in violation or OOB violation?

Team A is awarded a throw-in on a sideline of the court at the FT line extended in the backcourt. A1 steps OOB and the official administers the ball. A1 passes the ball on the OOB side of the boundary plane to the other end of the court and A2 runs over and catches the ball while it is still on the OOB side of the boundary plane, but has placed one foot OOB prior to catching the ball, so that when he makes contact with the ball he has one foot inbounds and one foot OOB at the 28 foot line in the frontcourt.

Is this a throw-in violation per 9-2-3 or an OOB violation per 9-3-2? It seems that both rules would apply equally to the situation. Does one take precedence over the other? More importantly where is the throw-in for Team B following the violation? Is it from the FT line extended in Team B's frontcourt or from the 28 foot line in their backcourt?
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 06:39am
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Does 9-2-2 also apply? The thrower did not pass the ball directly into the court. Perhaps it takes precedence over 9-2-3 and 9-3-2?

I think my initial reaction in a game is to rule this OOB, as paying attention to whether the ball is thrown onto the court or stays outside the boundary is not something I'm accustomed to looking at closely, but I'm thinking the correct call here is throw-in violation, with B getting the throw-in at the original spot.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 06:44am
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I'd say this is a throw-in violation, as the ball was not passed directly onto the court. Being a spot throw-in, the ball couldn't be passed among teammates OOB.

Ball to Team B at the spot of the original throw (and Team A loses the arrow if this was an AP throw-in).

Didn't we go round and round with a similar discussion before??
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 06:59am
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I'm going to add that I'm confident this is a throw-in violation, though I'm not sure if 9-2-2 or 9-2-11 applies. No teammate of the thrower shall be out of bounds after a designated-spot throw-in begins.

Seems to me that the act of catching the ball doesn't matter, as the ball should already be dead. The only question is whether it's for not throwing the ball directly onto the court or for A2 stepping OOB after the throw-in begins.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 07:05am
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jdw - 9-2-3 gives it to you. The thrown ball shall not be touched by a teammate of the thrower while the ball is on the out-of-bounds side of the throw-in boundary-line plane (except as in 7-5-7)

9-2-11 refers to the opponent touching the ball on the OOB side of the line.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 07:18am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Team A is awarded a throw-in on a sideline of the court at the FT line extended in the backcourt. A1 steps OOB and the official administers the ball. A1 passes the ball on the OOB side of the boundary plane to the other end of the court and A2 runs over and catches the ball while it is still on the OOB side of the boundary plane, but has placed one foot OOB prior to catching the ball, so that when he makes contact with the ball he has one foot inbounds and one foot OOB at the 28 foot line in the frontcourt.

Is this a throw-in violation per 9-2-3 or an OOB violation per 9-3-2? It seems that both rules would apply equally to the situation. Does one take precedence over the other? More importantly where is the throw-in for Team B following the violation? Is it from the FT line extended in Team B's frontcourt or from the 28 foot line in their backcourt?
I'd make it a throw-in violation, and return the ball to the original spot.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 07:28am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PYRef
jdw - 9-2-3 gives it to you. The thrown ball shall not be touched by a teammate of the thrower while the ball is on the out-of-bounds side of the throw-in boundary-line plane (except as in 7-5-7)

9-2-11 refers to the opponent touching the ball on the OOB side of the line.
Actually, PYRef, 9-2-11 says No teammate of the thrower shall be out of bounds after a designated-spot throw-in begins.

Therefore, the teammate has violated prior to catching the ball.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:01am
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Originally Posted by jdw3018
Does 9-2-2 also apply? The thrower did not pass the ball directly into the court. Perhaps it takes precedence over 9-2-3 and 9-3-2?
No, because the rule specifically allows the thrower to throw the ball so that it touches any player on the court; in bounds or out of bounds. 9-2-2 cannot apply here.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:11am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
A1 passes the ball on the OOB side of the boundary plane to the other end of the court and A2 runs over and catches the ball while it is still on the OOB side of the boundary plane, but has placed one foot OOB prior to catching the ball, so that when he makes contact with the ball he has one foot inbounds and one foot OOB at the 28 foot line in the frontcourt.
All that matters is the blue font. 9-2-3

Red font is irrelevant.
A2 foot InB or OOB does not matter because 9-2-3 occured.

Throw in violation. B ball where A1 was at.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:13am
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I guess you have to determine: When did the violation actually occur? Could the ball ,while it was in the air on the OOB side of the line, curve back into the court? Or was it thrown at such an angle that it could have bounced in bounds, all the way down by the other end line. These are possibilities. No violation actually occured untill the ball was touched by the OOB teammate. I'd give B the ball at the spot where it was touched.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by FrankHtown
INo violation actually occured untill the ball was touched by the OOB teammate. I'd give B the ball at the spot where it was touched.
Actually, I differ with this statement, as in the OP A2 stepped OOB prior to catching the ball. As I read it, this is a direct violation of 9-2-11, as A2 is OOB prior to the throw-in ending.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
I'd make it a throw-in violation, and return the ball to the original spot.
This is the answer. We have talked about this before.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:24am
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But, the throw-in ends when the ball is released by the thrower. So, the player being OOB is not a 9-2-11 violation.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:26am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jdw3018
Actually, I differ with this statement, as in the OP A2 stepped OOB prior to catching the ball. As I read it, this is a direct violation of 9-2-11, as A2 is OOB prior to the throw-in ending.
Agreed. And, even though in the OP A2 was on the same OOB line as the thrower, that is not required for this violation. The prohibition is against being OOB anywhere during a throwin.

So, change the situation to an endline throwin after a goal. A2 goes streaking down the court for a potential fast break but the pass is too long. Knowing B will get the ball under their own basket, A2 catches up to the ball before it goes OOB, but is himself OOB prior to touching the ball.

We're still going back to the spot where A1 released the pass; unless it was deflected on the way.
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Old Fri Nov 02, 2007, 08:27am
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Originally Posted by FrankHtown
But, the throw-in ends when the ball is released by the thrower. So, the player being OOB is not a 9-2-11 violation.
No, the throwin doesn't end until the ball is legally touched inbounds or the throwin team violates.
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