OB throw in after made basket

[hoopsaddict]

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[Adam]

Unless he thinks the player needs two feet OOB to make the throw-in pass, he's got no logic to stand on.
Either way, he's wrong. His player established himself OOB when he picked up the IB foot. Setting it back down IB is a violation.

[Mark Padgett]

When the inbounding player was standing with one foot OOB and the other in the air, he is OOB. If he then touches the foot that was in the air inbounds while the other foot is still OOB, it is an OOB violation.

IOW - you were correct.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by hoopsaddict

Had a Coach ask me about this play in a off-court setting. I gave him my answer but wasn't really sure the ruling to back it up.

Anyways the Coach asked after a made basket his team get the ball and perceeds to inbound the ball. His player takes one foot out of bounds and lifts the other foot up off the court. His player then attempts to make a pass in bounds and notices the other team pressing while still holding the ball the player puts the second foot down in bounds and then takes it back out of bounds to make a pass.

I gave him my answer that the player committed a violation by placing the foot in bounds and we would give the ball to the opposing team. His response was that the player never established that foot out of bounds and that they would be able to still continue the throw-in.

I'm fairly confident that this is a violation however like I stated I'm not sure where or what rule would back up my statement.

I know you're just the messenger so don't take this personally.

But what brilliant mind thought up this logic? On one hand he's saying if A1 had released the throw-in pass it would be legal b/c he had one foot OOB and the other in the air.

But on the other hand if A1 put his 2nd foot down it shouldn't be a violation b/c A1 didn't establish himself OOB.

Well, if he never established himself OOB than how would the throw-in have been legal if he had released the pass?

Hope this coach isn't a science or math teacher.