4-42 Throw-in;designated spot

[RefLarry]

Team A has the AP arrow to start the second half. A1 is standing completley out of bounds (designated thrower) next to the referee. The referee sounds his whistle and attempts to hand the ball to A1 but A1 runs on the court (leaving the designated-spot area).The ref places the ball on the gound OOB and begins the 5 second count. A1 never touched the ball OOB. A2 steps out of bounds and completes the throw-in before the 5 second count reaches 5.A2 appeared to be the player who was supposed to inbound for team A. it appeared that he forgot at first. Is this play legal?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by RefLarry

Is this play legal?

The thrower shall not leave the designated throw-in spot until the
ball has been released on a throw-in pass.

The thrown ball shall not be touched by a teammate of the thrower
while the ball is on the out-of-bounds side of the throw-in boundary-line plane,
except as in 7-5-7.

The thrower shall not be replaced by a teammate after the ball is at
the thrower's disposal, except as in 7-5-7.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by RefLarry

Team A has the AP arrow to start the second half. A1 is standing completley out of bounds (designated thrower) next to the referee. The referee sounds his whistle and attempts to hand the ball to A1 but A1 runs on the court (leaving the designated-spot area).The ref places the ball on the gound OOB and begins the 5 second count. A1 never touched the ball OOB. A2 steps out of bounds and completes the throw-in before the 5 second count reaches 5.A2 appeared to be the player who was supposed to inbound for team A. it appeared that he forgot at first. Is this play legal?

I believe that it is legal. A1 vacated prior to the ball being placed at the disposal. Therefore, A1 was not the thrower, nor was he a teammate of the thrower who was OOB during the throw-in.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

I believe that it is legal. A1 vacated prior to the ball being placed at the disposal. Therefore, A1 was not the thrower, nor was he a teammate of the thrower who was OOB during the throw-in.

With Nevada on this one. Ball was never at A1's disposal.

[Upward ref]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

With Nevada on this one. Ball was never at A1's disposal.

So when the ball is placed at A1's disposal, He / She can refuse it and enter the court? Seems like it certainly was at their disposal as the ref was ready and handing it over .

[johnny1784]

Originally Posted by Upward ref

So when the ball is placed at A1's disposal, He / She can refuse it and enter the court? Seems like it certainly was at their disposal as the ref was ready and handing it over .

I agree the ball was at A1's disposal prior to returning onto court.

[Anchor]

I think this is an either/or situation. Arguments could be made that the ball was at the disposal (handed but not accepted) and that it was not (never touched). I'm thinking it is a HTBT situation: if it was obvious trickery to deceive the opponent into guarding the wrong person I'd tend toward calling it; if it was clearly a brain cramp by some kid being a kid I'd tend to let it slide.

Would it make a difference if the official had bounced the ball (begun his bounce) and the thrower just ignored the ball and changed places while the ball dribbled away?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

I believe that it is legal. A1 vacated prior to the ball being placed at the disposal. Therefore, A1 was not the thrower, nor was he a teammate of the thrower who was OOB during the throw-in.

Agree.