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Old Wed Sep 23, 2009, 09:13am
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Originally Posted by M&M Guy View Post
The difference being the ball hitting the wall was imminent and definite, while the violation in the OP was not.
No, what was imminent in the OP was a turnover. So, the accidental whistle "rule" can be waived, but only if a violation is "imminent and definite." And this can be found in our books on page? Sounds a lot like a case of "cuz I said so" to me.
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Last edited by just another ref; Tue Nov 17, 2009 at 04:58am.
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Old Wed Sep 23, 2009, 09:30am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
No, what was imminent in the OP was a turnover. So, the accidental whistle "rule" can be waved, but only if a violation is "imminent and definite." And this can be found in our books on page? Sounds a lot like a case of "cuz I said so" to me.
Yep, it is.

Look, I understand what you and Camron are trying to say, and by a strict reading of the rules, you may be right. But there is still the issue of players being affected by the whistle. In the OP, when the official blew the whistle, someone stopped, someone else slowed down, another player turned around to look at the official, etc. Play was affected by the whistle, however slight. If a player was diving for the ball going OOB, and the whistle caused them to alter their movements, yes, I would also consider that an accidental whistle.

However, if no players were affected, the ball was well out of reach, and unless you can show me the wall was affected by the whistle, yep, I gonna "waive" that accidental whistle rule thingy and call it a premature whistle, cuz I said so.
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