Foul During Free Throw

[MRIGUY]

A1 free throw is in flight when A2 fouls B1, a) during a bonus which the ball goes in . b)ball does not go in. C) the 1st free throw of a 2 shot free throw with the shot is good. d) 2nd shot of the 2 shot free throw. with the shot being good. B1 is in the bonus.

[cmathews]

but my gut says this....in order to foul, while the ball is in flight on a free throw, it would be tough not to violate first. With the violation the ball becomes dead, so unless the foul is intentional or flagrant, we have a violation by A2.

In A, B and D B's ball nearest the violation the shot doesn't count in any of them if it goes in
In C shoot the second free throw

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MRIGUY

A1 free throw is in flight when A2 fouls B1, a) during a bonus which the ball goes in . b)ball does not go in. C) the 1st free throw of a 2 shot free throw with the shot is good. d) 2nd shot of the 2 shot free throw. with the shot being good. B1 is in the bonus.

False double foul -- administer the fouls in the order they occurred.
a) A1 shoots the second throw with no one on the lane
b) ball is dead when the FT misses
c) same as a)
d) ball is dead when the FT is good

In all cases, B1 shoots FTs with the players lined up.

[cmathews]

How does A commit a foul without violating first? The only way I can think of is to not move the feet, but just push with the hands...that I can see, but very seldom do you see that without the player moving their feet, if they move the feet to committ the foul, they violate first don't they? If they do, the ball is dead and unless the contact is intentional or flagrant it would be ignored??

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by cmathews

How does A commit a foul without violating first? The only way I can think of is to not move the feet, but just push with the hands...that I can see, but very seldom do you see that without the player moving their feet, if they move the feet to committ the foul, they violate first don't they? If they do, the ball is dead and unless the contact is intentional or flagrant it would be ignored??

*IF* they violate first, then I agree. But, that wasn't the question posed.

Suppose the ball hits the rim, bounces up, the players all enter, the ball bounces again, A2 shoves B1 in the back .....

[cmathews]

I agree LOL, I guess it is all in how you interpret the OP....I was assuming, which I know can be bad, that the ball hadn't touched the rim yet, and thus the players weren't allowed to be moving....

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by cmathews

How does A commit a foul without violating first? The only way I can think of is to not move the feet, but just push with the hands...that I can see, but very seldom do you see that without the player moving their feet, if they move the feet to committ the foul, they violate first don't they? If they do, the ball is dead and unless the contact is intentional or flagrant it would be ignored??

If A2 and B1 are not on the lane but outside the 3-pont arc they can easily foul each other without violating.

Along the lane, still possible with body contact or hands....or with a ball bouncing on the rim. With the divider being only 2" thick, it would be very easy for the players in the 2nd and 3rd slot to lean on each other while their feet remained in their boxes.