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Originally Posted by cmathews
How does A commit a foul without violating first? The only way I can think of is to not move the feet, but just push with the hands...that I can see, but very seldom do you see that without the player moving their feet, if they move the feet to committ the foul, they violate first don't they? If they do, the ball is dead and unless the contact is intentional or flagrant it would be ignored??
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*IF* they violate first, then I agree. But, that wasn't the question posed.
Suppose the ball hits the rim, bounces up, the players all enter, the ball bounces again, A2 shoves B1 in the back .....