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Originally Posted by cmathews
How does A commit a foul without violating first? The only way I can think of is to not move the feet, but just push with the hands...that I can see, but very seldom do you see that without the player moving their feet, if they move the feet to committ the foul, they violate first don't they? If they do, the ball is dead and unless the contact is intentional or flagrant it would be ignored??
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If A2 and B1 are not on the lane but outside the 3-pont arc they can easily foul each other without violating.
Along the lane, still possible with body contact or hands....or with a ball bouncing on the rim. With the divider being only 2" thick, it would be very easy for the players in the 2nd and 3rd slot to lean on each other while their feet remained in their boxes.