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Old Tue Dec 26, 2006, 10:05am
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If the timeout request was made, and all conditions to LEGALLY request the timeout were present, and the official can verify that the coach of the team in possession of the ball was the person requesting the timeout, why would any official NOT grant it? Just curious.

Just last week (in the same game) I had the exact scenarios Rich and Snaq described. In one, Team A player is trapped in the corner by B1 and B2. Team A coach requests TO. Before my co-official can blow his whistle, there is a steal. TWEET! He gave the TO to Team A. Team B Coach didn't like it, but the request was made and had been granted by the official even though he wasn't able to signal as much until after the steal had been made. In the second situation, Team A player is spotting up for a 3-pt. shot. Coach requests TO. I check to make sure it is the HC, and look for a signal or verbal request. GOT IT! Player shoots the 3-pt shot. TWEET! SWISH! Nothing but net. Me: "No Shot! No Shot! Time out, white!" I wave off the basket, and report the timeout request to the table. Coach understood. He didn't like the fact that HIS request cost his team 3 points (they lost by ONE), but his action determined the outcome. I have to go with what I have at that moment. As an official I can't try to foresee the future, I can only go with the present.

BTW, the timeout request shall be granted as long as the player has control of the ball and his position is legally inbounds. Since his last legal position was inbounds, he is not OOB until he hits the floor OOB. I did have a coach yell at me one night, "this isn't the NBA! He can't do that." My reply, "Coach, timeout Blue!" He wanted to vent, and bait me into a response. He got to vent, but I gave up being a fish a long time ago.
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