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Old Fri Dec 08, 2006, 03:19pm
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Join Date: Nov 2001
Location: Cincinnati, OH
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells
Yes, but....
In the original post, he specifically stated that B2 went through A2 to get to the ball, taking A2 out at the knees. I'm not picturing any play that could be described this way in which it is not a foul on B2.

That is exactly what happened....
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