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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Sep 28, 2006, 07:19pm
oc oc is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Does it matter where A1 touches the ball after it went into the back court, as per R9-1?

If A1, who was completely in the front-court, dribbled on the center line, and the dribble then hit A1 who was still completely in the front court, is that legal also?
No, but in my situation the ball clearly gets frontcourt status before being touched. Although it appeared to meet the standards for backcourt according to the letter of the rule-that answer didn't feel right to me. I am not going to argue though. If you, Chuck, and BktBallRef all think it is a violation I will just sit back eat some popcorn and let someone else hash out a losing battle.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Thu Sep 28, 2006, 07:24pm
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In reply to JR:
Quote:
Originally Posted by oc
No, but in my situation the ball clearly gets frontcourt status before being touched. Although it appeared to meet the standards for backcourt according to the letter of the rule-that answer didn't feel right to me. I am not going to argue though. If you, Chuck, and BktBallRef all think it is a violation I will just sit back eat some popcorn and let someone else hash out a losing battle.
Sure, fine, just forget about the guy who gave the original answer!
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Thu Sep 28, 2006, 09:29pm
oc oc is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
In reply to JR:


Sure, fine, just forget about the guy who gave the original answer!
humble apologies. I should add nevadaref, rainmaker,...

If I give you some of my popcorn will you forgive me?
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Fri Sep 29, 2006, 03:19am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by oc
humble apologies. I should add nevadaref, rainmaker,...

If I give you some of my popcorn will you forgive me?
Good thing I like popcorn.
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