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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 03:06pm
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 346
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why is the foul on the airborne shooter a dead ball foul?
Hmmm, ok how about:
1. A1 goes airborne and releases the shot
2. B1 hits the ball into the stands with his/her fist [9-4]
3. Now the ball is dead, the shooter is in the air and a foul could occur.
...the wording (Rule 4-19-1)A personal foul also includes contact by or on an airborne shooter when the ball is dead. has to be in the rule book for something valid (doesn't it?)!
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Old Sun May 07, 2006, 04:05pm
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Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally Posted by jkjenning
Hmmm, ok how about:
1. A1 goes airborne and releases the shot
2. B1 hits the ball into the stands with his/her fist [9-4]
3. Now the ball is dead, the shooter is in the air and a foul could occur.
...the wording (Rule 4-19-1)A personal foul also includes contact by or on an airborne shooter when the ball is dead. has to be in the rule book for something valid (doesn't it?)!
That's a whole bunch of hang time.....

Don't overthink the play. Just as Chuck pointed out, the ball is dead as soon as a goal is scored-rule 6-7-1. All contact fouls during a dead ball are ignored unless the contact is judged intentional or flagrant. If you judge the dead-ball contact intentional or flagrant, you have to call an intentional or flagrant technical foul, as per 4-19-5(c). There is only one exception to the preceding, and that exception is contact on an airborne shooter. Contact on an airborne shooter after the ball becomes dead is treated as if that contact occurred during a live ball; iow it's a personal foul- and it's one FT if the shot went in or 2 FT's if the shot misses.

That's why the exception is in the book. Make sense now?
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