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Thanks for all of the responses ...just to continue the discussion
In my related earlier post back on April 7 "Travelling or Fumbled Ball" BEAREF posted: "Without possession of the ball a travel violation is not possible". And in this my current post: "Fumbled Ball(cont)" JeffM posted: "A fumble is the accidental loss of player control (of the ball) when the player unintentionally drops or slips from a player's grasp" I agree with the posts with all three of the "hypos" something illegal has occurred BUT in my mind a query still exists .... if you can't travel without the ball ... and the player in the 3 hypos does not have the ball .... there seems to be an inconsistency here ...is it just because a player inadvertently loses control of the ball due to a faulty maneuver of his own doing that we ignore that he or she was able to move to a different part of the court!" I understand it is in the casebook ...but is it written this way in the rulebook ...it seems a bit contradictory to me in one instance it is okay to go after and retrieve the ball and in another it is a violation of some sorts... |
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