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In the scenario described in the OP, it would be a balk under current MLB rules assuming the pitcher did not disengage before the feint to 3rd.
In FED a balk is an immediate dead ball but I dont think that is always true in MLB. (see ruling below) 8.05 APPROVED RULING: In cases where a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home plate, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which he is entitled at his own risk. |
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Quote:
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I'm sure you're right. I'm more familiar with FED at this time. But if the throw to 2nd (described in OP) rolls out to the CF fence, the offensive manager is going to wonder why R1 cannot advance to 3B based on my cited ruling.
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"Balks-and-throws-wild" is NOT the same as "balks, and THEN throws wild"
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The balk happened when he failed to throw to third. The play is over at this point. The rest of the action never happened.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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