Rules question #3...please help....

[trippingants4134]

The ball is in the front court...a player has possession of the ball...and turns to throw the ball to a man who is currently standing in the backcourt...

the man in the backcourt leaves his feet in the backcourt....catches the ball in the air...and lands in the front court...

is this backcourt? doesn't he have to establish himself in the front court before touching the ball, similar to the way he must establish himself in bounds before touching a ball??

[Tim Roden]

The rule on an airborn player is, you are where you last were. So when that player went airborn from backcourt, he is still in backcourt until he gets one foot down in front court. So if he catches the ball int he air, he is in backcourt and it is a violation.

[RX Ref]

if he takes off from the BC, he must land in the FC before he catches the ball, or this is a violation.

[mick]

tripping,
What Tim and RX said.

But, remember, this does not apply for a throw-in where there is no FC possession.
mick

[IUgrad92]

RX Ref,

It's a violation if he catches it or TOUCHES it before establishing in the front court?

And what is the answer if you flip the situation. Ball is in backcourt with A1, A1 throws to A2, who is currently in frontcourt but running towards backcourt. A2 jumps from the frontcourt, catches the pass, and lands in the backcourt. What's your call?

[Mark Dexter]

Originally posted by IUgrad92
RX Ref,

It's a violation if he catches it or TOUCHES it before establishing in the front court?

I'm not RX ref (although I do work as an Rx technician and do stay in Holiday Inn Expresses from time to time ), but I'll answer this question - yet it's a violation even if the ball is only touched. Consider this example - A1 has the ball in the FC, A1 rolls the ball into the backcourt, where A2 tips it - BC violation, even though there was no player control. 9-9 says that a player shall not be the first to touch the ball, yadda, yadda . . .

And what is the answer if you flip the situation. Ball is in backcourt with A1, A1 throws to A2, who is currently in frontcourt but running towards backcourt. A2 jumps from the frontcourt, catches the pass, and lands in the backcourt. What's your call?

Backcourt violation. Let's look at the four "keys"
(1) There must be team control.
(2) The ball must attain frontcourt status.
(3) A# must be the last to touch the ball before it goes BC.
(4) A# must be the first to touch the ball after it has been in the BC.

1 is obvious in this case.
2 - the ball attains frontcourt status when it touches airborn A2 - see 4-35-3 for location of an airborne player and 4-4 for location of the ball/
3 - When A2 touched the ball, it was FC.
4 - When A2 landed while holding the ball, he was in the BC.

Since all four conditions were met, we have a backcourt violation.

(How's that for a short post? )

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by IUgrad92
RX Ref,

It's a violation if he catches it or TOUCHES it before establishing in the front court?

Touches it.

And what is the answer if you flip the situation. Ball is in backcourt with A1, A1 throws to A2, who is currently in frontcourt but running towards backcourt. A2 jumps from the frontcourt, catches the pass, and lands in the backcourt. What's your call?

This is also a BC violation

[Oz Referee]

Originally posted by mick

But, remember, this does not apply for a throw-in where there is no FC possession.
mick

Yes it does apply if the throw in from the front court.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally posted by Oz Referee

Yes it does apply if the throw in from the front court.

I think this is just a FEEBLE rule.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Oz Referee
Yes it does apply if the throw in from the front court.

Maybe under FEEBLE rules but not under NFHS or NCAA rules.

[Dan_ref]

Originally posted by mick
tripping,
What Tim and RX said.

But, remember, this does not apply for a throw-in where there is no FC possession.
mick

Or on a steal. A1, in his backcourt, makes a pass over the
division line. B1 jumps from his backcourt, catches
A1's pass and lands in B1's own frontcourt. No BC
violation.

[RX Ref]

]

I'm not RX ref (although I do work as an Rx technician and do stay in Holiday Inn Expresses from time to time ), but I'll answer this question - yet it's a violation even if the ball is only touched. Consider this example - A1 has the ball in the FC, A1 rolls the ball into the backcourt, where A2 tips it - BC violation, even though there was no player control. 9-9 says that a player shall not be the first to touch the ball, yadda, yadda . . .

Thanks Mark,
I never refuse the help of a good technician.