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In the scenario described in the OP, it would be a balk under current MLB rules assuming the pitcher did not disengage before the feint to 3rd.
In FED a balk is an immediate dead ball but I dont think that is always true in MLB. (see ruling below)
8.05 APPROVED RULING: In cases where a pitcher balks and throws wild, either to a base or to home plate, a runner or runners may advance beyond the base to which he is entitled at his own risk.
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