Why is the ruling on this move being changed?

[tcarilli]

Originally Posted by mbyron

Tony, that's the FED rule (6-2-4f).

OBR 8.05a COMMENT is usually interpreted as any part of the foot.

I don't think that is what 8.05a says. Maybe I'm getting old and fuzzy headed but I remember as a cadet at the Academy being told that it was the whole foot past the whole rubber.

I stand corrected I just found MLBUM 7.5(c).

NCAA is explicit about it in 9-1-b (3)

When the pitcher starts the delivery from the set position and the entire free foot or any part of the stride leg breaks the plane of theback edge of the pitcher’s rubber, the pitcher is committed to throwor feint a motion toward second base or pitch to home plate.

Thanks for making me look it up, I appreciate it really. Any day I can learn something is a good day!

And I really got to update my PBUC manual. The one I have says in 6.4 (b)

...when he swings his entire foot completely behind the back edge of the rubber.